A 36-year-old pregnant woman at 34 weeks gestation is hospitalized after presenting with a blood pressure of 168/112 mmHg, headache, and bilateral lower extremity edema. Laboratory results reveal proteinuria of 450 mg/24 hours but are otherwise unremarkable, with normal platelet count and liver enzymes. She is administered an intravenous medication that directly relaxes arteriolar smooth muscle to acutely lower her blood pressure while awaiting delivery. She responds well and is discharged after an uncomplicated preterm delivery. Several months postpartum, she presents to her primary care physician reporting symmetric joint pain, facial rash, and generalized malaise. Repeat laboratory testing reveals positive antinuclear antibodies and anti-histone antibodies. Which of the following drugs most likely caused this complication?

  1. A)Nifedipine
  2. B)Furosemide
  3. C)Clonidine
  4. D)HydralazineGABARITO
  5. E)Labetalol

Explicação

Hydralazine is a direct arteriolar vasodilator used for severe hypertension including in pregnancy. Drug induced lupus is a classic adverse effect, particularly with prolonged exposure. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →

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