A 67-year-old man presents with urinary hesitancy, weak stream, and nocturia. Vital signs show BP 142/88, HR 78, RR 16, temp 37.2°C. Digital rectal examination reveals a symmetrically enlarged, rubbery prostate without nodules. PSA is mildly elevated at 6.2 ng/mL. Urinalysis shows no hematuria or infection. He denies taking 5-alpha reductase inhibitors. Which pathologic process best explains the prostate enlargement?
- A)Dysplastic epithelial growth caused by human papillomavirus
- B)Hypertrophy of stromal and glandular elements without cell division
- C)Hyperplasia of prostatic glands and stroma due to dihydrotestosterone stimulationGABARITO
- D)Metaplastic replacement of glandular epithelium by squamous epithelium
- E)Malignant neoplastic transformation of peripheral zone acini
Explicação
Benign prostatic hyperplasia is caused by dihydrotestosterone driven hyperplasia of both stromal and glandular tissue, especially in the periurethral region. The result is nodular enlargement producing lower urinary tract obstruction symptoms such as hesitancy... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →