A 34-year-old woman presents with acute vision loss in her left eye and pain with eye movements. MRI shows inflammation of the optic nerve. She has no other neurologic symptoms currently, but brain MRI reveals multiple T2 hyperintense lesions in periventricular and infratentorial regions. CSF analysis shows oligoclonal bands. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. A)Multiple sclerosisGABARITO
  2. B)Syphilitic optic neuritis
  3. C)Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder
  4. D)Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
  5. E)Leber hereditary optic neuropathy

Explicação

Optic neuritis is a common presenting symptom of multiple sclerosis, occurring in ~50% of MS patients. The presence of multiple brain lesions with characteristic periventricular and infratentorial distribution, oligoclonal bands in CSF, and evidence of dissemi... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →

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