A 74-year-old man with a 50 pack-year smoking history and hypertension presents for routine follow-up. Vital signs show BP 158/92 mmHg, HR 88 bpm, RR 16, temp 37°C. On abdominal examination, a pulsatile mass is palpated above the umbilicus. Abdominal ultrasound reveals a 5.8 cm infrarenal aortic aneurysm with no evidence of rupture or dissection. He denies abdominal or back pain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Syphilitic thoracic aortic aneurysm
- B)Thromboangiitis obliterans
- C)Peripheral arterial disease
- D)Aortic dissection
- E)Abdominal aortic aneurysmGABARITO
Explicação
Abdominal aortic aneurysm is correct. In older smokers, atherosclerosis commonly causes infrarenal aneurysmal dilation of the abdominal aorta. Large diameter lesions have increased risk of rupture, which makes surveillance and repair thresholds clinically impo... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →