A 52-year-old woman with no prior neurologic history develops asymmetric vision loss, vertigo, and sensory loss in the lower extremities. Laboratory testing shows elevated inflammatory markers and positive aquaporin-4 IgG antibodies. Brain MRI reveals lesions in the optic nerves, brainstem, and spinal cord. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
- B)Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorderGABARITO
- C)Sarcoidosis
- D)Leber hereditary optic neuropathy
- E)Multiple sclerosis
Explicação
Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder (NMOSD) presents with recurrent optic neuritis and transverse myelitis. The seropositivity for aquaporin-4 IgG antibodies is highly specific for NMOSD, distinguishing it from MS. The lesions affecting optic nerves, brains... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →