A 72-year-old man with a 3-year history of metastatic prostate cancer presents to his oncology clinic for routine follow-up. His blood pressure is 128/76 mmHg, heart rate is 82/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. Physical examination reveals no palpable gynecomastia or breast tenderness, and his testes are of normal size bilaterally. Urinalysis is within normal limits. His PSA is significantly elevated at 18 ng/mL, and repeat bone scan confirms osseous metastases. He reports no prior hormonal or androgen-deprivation therapy. His oncologist initiates a nonsteroidal antiandrogen agent that competitively blocks both testosterone and dihydrotestosterone at the androgen receptor level without suppressing central gonadotropin release. Which of the following drugs was most likely prescribed?
- A)Finasteride
- B)Spironolactone
- C)FlutamideGABARITO
- D)Clomiphene
- E)Leuprolide
Explicação
Flutamide is an androgen receptor blocker used in prostate cancer. Unlike finasteride, which reduces DHT synthesis, flutamide directly blocks androgen receptor signaling and can cause gynecomastia and hepatotoxicity. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →