A 42-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus presents with recurrent deep vein thrombosis in both lower extremities despite therapeutic warfarin (INR 2.5). Vital signs show BP 128/82, HR 92, RR 18, temp 37°C, SpO2 98%. Laboratory studies reveal prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time that does not correct on mixing study. D-dimer is elevated at 2.8 μg/mL. Anticardiolipin antibodies are negative. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?
- A)Antiphospholipid syndromeGABARITO
- B)Factor VIII deficiency
- C)Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
- D)Disseminated intravascular coagulation
- E)Vitamin K deficiency
Explicação
Antiphospholipid syndrome presents with thrombosis and prolonged aPTT that does not correct with mixing (inhibitor present). Associated with SLE and other autoimmune conditions. The combination of thrombosis despite anticoagulation and lupus anticoagulant (cau... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →