A 31-year-old woman presents with abnormal cervical cytology. Vital signs are normal (BP 118/76, HR 82, RR 16, Temp 37°C, SpO2 98%). Cervical biopsy demonstrates high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion with increased mitotic figures. Molecular testing confirms high-risk HPV-16 infection. HPV serology is negative. She takes oral contraceptives but denies smoking. Which viral protein most directly promotes malignant transformation of cervical epithelium?
- A)Inactivation of p53 and retinoblastoma proteins by viral oncoproteinsGABARITO
- B)Production of reverse transcriptase that integrates into host DNA
- C)Insertion of viral neuraminidase into host cell membranes
- D)ADP ribosylation of elongation factor 2
- E)Activation of latent infection in dorsal root ganglia
Explicação
High risk human papillomavirus strains express E6 and E7 proteins that inactivate p53 and retinoblastoma tumor suppressor pathways. Loss of cell cycle control drives dysplasia and can lead to invasive cervical carcinoma. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →