A 54-year-old man presents for follow-up 3 weeks after emergency percutaneous coronary intervention for ST-elevation myocardial infarction. During hospitalization, he developed acute kidney injury requiring close monitoring. His serum creatinine peaked at 3.2 mg/dL on hospital day 3 but has since declined. He now reports polyuria with urine output exceeding 4 L/day. Current laboratory values show serum creatinine 1.6 mg/dL, BUN 20 mg/dL, serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L (normal 3.5-5.0), serum sodium 128 mEq/L (normal 135-145), serum magnesium 1.4 mg/dL (normal 1.7-2.2), and serum phosphate 2.1 mg/dL (normal 2.5-4.5). Which of the following best explains the current electrolyte abnormalities and represents the primary concern requiring intervention?

1. A)Hyperkalemia due to continued renal tubular dysfunction and reduced urinary potassium excretion
2. B)Metabolic alkalosis from loss of hydrogen ions in dilute urine during the polyuric phase
3. C)Hypokalemia from enhanced urinary potassium wasting during tubular recovery with intact glomerular filtrationGABARITO
4. D)Hypermagnesemia secondary to decreased glomerular filtration rate and impaired tubular magnesium reabsorption
5. E)Hypernatremia from prerenal azotemia and increased insensible fluid losses