A 54-year-old woman with septic shock from perforated diverticulitis is admitted. Two days post-admission, she develops acute dyspnea and hypoxemia requiring intubation. Current vitals: HR 118, BP 92/58, RR 28, SpO2 88% on FiO2 1.0. Chest radiograph reveals diffuse bilateral ground-glass opacities. Arterial blood gas shows PaO2 65 mmHg on high-flow oxygen. Lung compliance is severely decreased. She denies recent aspiration. Which diagnosis best explains her clinical presentation?
- A)Transudative pleural effusion from congestive heart failure
- B)Community acquired pneumonia
- C)Pulmonary edema due to left sided heart failure
- D)Pulmonary embolism
- E)Acute respiratory distress syndromeGABARITO
Explicação
Acute respiratory distress syndrome is correct. A major inflammatory insult followed by diffuse bilateral infiltrates and refractory hypoxemia is classic for ARDS. The underlying lesion is diffuse alveolar damage with protein rich hyaline membranes and severe ... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →