A 27-year-old woman presents with acute left gaze palsy; the right eye fails to adduct while the left eye demonstrates nystagmus. She reports transient monocular vision loss three months prior and right-sided sensory loss six months ago. Vital signs: BP 118/76, HR 82, RR 16, Temp 37°C, SpO2 98%. Brain MRI reveals T2 hyperintense lesions in the optic nerve and periventricular white matter. CSF analysis shows oligoclonal bands. She denies fever or recent infections. Which diagnosis best explains these recurrent, anatomically distinct neurologic episodes?

  1. A)Parkinson disease
  2. B)Multiple sclerosisGABARITO
  3. C)Myasthenia gravis
  4. D)Posterior communicating artery aneurysm
  5. E)Temporal arteritis

Explicação

Multiple sclerosis is the correct answer because optic neuritis and internuclear ophthalmoplegia occurring in separate episodes are classic manifestations of a CNS demyelinating disease separated in time and space. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →

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