A 59-year-old man presents with 40 minutes of crushing substernal chest pain radiating to his left arm. Vital signs show BP 142/88 mmHg, HR 98 bpm, RR 18, SpO2 98% on room air. ECG demonstrates ST segment depressions in lateral leads. Troponin I is elevated at 2.1 ng/mL. He denies dyspnea. He takes aspirin and atorvastatin daily. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Aortic dissection
- B)Stable angina
- C)Prinzmetal angina
- D)Cardiac tamponade
- E)NSTEMIGABARITO
Explicação
NSTEMI is correct. Elevated troponin confirms myocardial necrosis, and the ST depressions suggest subendocardial ischemia from subtotal coronary occlusion rather than transmural infarction. Stable angina would not elevate biomarkers. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →