A 41-year-old man with severe acne is prescribed isotretinoin and concurrently takes doxycycline for secondary bacterial infection. He develops severe frontal headache, blurred vision, and diplopia. Vital signs show BP 128/82, HR 92, RR 16, temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. MRI demonstrates papilledema and enlarged blind spot on visual field testing. Fundoscopy reveals no focal neurologic deficits. Which of the following best explains this adverse effect?
- A)Drug-induced vasculitis affecting cerebral vessels
- B)Hepatotoxicity impairing intracranial pressure regulation
- C)Additive intracranial hypertension from isotretinoin and doxycyclineGABARITO
- D)Bacterial meningitis from doxycycline resistance selection
- E)Synergistic teratogenicity from isotretinoin and tetracycline combination
Explicação
Both isotretinoin and tetracyclines (including doxycycline) can independently cause pseudotumor cerebri (benign intracranial hypertension). Combined use creates additive risk. This is a known serious adverse effect requiring monitoring and often discontinuatio... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →