A 45-year-old woman with a 3-year history of hypertension presents with persistent blood pressure elevation (168/105 mmHg) despite lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide therapy. She reports intermittent muscle cramps and generalized weakness. Vital signs show heart rate 88/min, respiratory rate 16/min. Laboratory studies reveal potassium 2.9 mEq/L, bicarbonate 33 mEq/L, elevated plasma aldosterone concentration, and suppressed plasma renin activity. Serum glucose and renal function are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion
- B)Secondary hyperaldosteronism due to renal artery stenosis
- C)Primary hyperaldosteronismGABARITO
- D)Pheochromocytoma
- E)Adrenal insufficiency
Explicação
Primary hyperaldosteronism causes hypertension, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis due to sodium retention and increased potassium and hydrogen ion excretion. Renin is suppressed because volume expansion turns off the RAAS. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →