A 62-year-old man with hypertension and diabetes presents with acute onset right-sided weakness and facial droop while having breakfast. His wife activates emergency services immediately, and he arrives at the ED within 45 minutes of symptom onset. Neuroimaging shows no evidence of hemorrhage. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A)Administer heparin anticoagulation immediately
- B)Obtain an MRI of the brain before any intervention
- C)Start aspirin 325 mg orally and admit for observation
- D)Perform immediate carotid ultrasound to assess for stenosis
- E)Administer intravenous alteplase (tissue plasminogen activator)GABARITO
Explicação
This patient presents with acute ischemic stroke symptoms within the 4.5-hour thrombolytic window. CT excludes hemorrhage, making him a candidate for IV alteplase. Rapid thrombolytic therapy is indicated to restore cerebral blood flow and minimize neurological... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →