A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute chest pain following cocaine use. Vital signs show BP 168/104 mmHg, HR 138/min, RR 22/min, and normal SpO2. He appears anxious and diaphoretic. ECG demonstrates sinus tachycardia without ST elevation or T-wave changes. Troponin is negative. He denies prior cardiac history or current beta-blocker use. Which pharmacologic agent is most appropriate for initial management?
- A)Phenylephrine
- B)Propranolol
- C)Atropine
- D)BenzodiazepinesGABARITO
- E)Digoxin
Explicação
Cocaine intoxication causes excess sympathetic activity by blocking catecholamine reuptake. Benzodiazepines are first line because they reduce central sympathetic outflow and help control hypertension, tachycardia, and agitation. Pure beta blockade is avoided ... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →