A 36-year-old woman with a history of chronic NSAID use presents to the emergency department with acute onset epigastric pain and hemodynamic instability. Vital signs show blood pressure 92/58 mmHg, heart rate 118 bpm, and respiratory rate 22/min. Laboratory studies reveal hemoglobin 7.2 g/dL (previously 12.5 g/dL 2 weeks ago). Upper endoscopy shows a large, actively bleeding ulcer along the greater curvature of the stomach approximately 5 cm proximal to the pylorus. The ulcer has eroded completely through the gastric wall with visible arterial bleeding. Emergency surgical intervention is undertaken. Which of the following arteries is most likely responsible for the hemorrhage in this case?
- A)Left gastric artery
- B)Short gastric arteries
- C)Right gastric artery
- D)Left gastroepiploic artery
- E)Right gastroepiploic arteryGABARITO
Explicação
The right gastroepiploic artery is the correct answer. This vessel runs along the greater curvature of the stomach within the gastrocolic ligament, supplying the distal (antral) portion of the greater curvature. A 5 cm proximal location from the pylorus places... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →