A 64-year-old hypertensive man on aspirin presents with sudden loss of vision on the left side in both eyes while reading. Vital signs show BP 168/94 mmHg, HR 88/min, RR 16/min, temp 37°C, SpO2 98%. He retains ability to read words placed directly ahead. Motor examination is normal. MRI diffusion-weighted imaging reveals acute infarction in the left occipital lobe. Which artery is most likely occluded?
- A)Posterior cerebral arteryGABARITO
- B)Anterior spinal artery
- C)Basilar artery
- D)Middle cerebral artery
- E)Anterior cerebral artery
Explicação
Posterior cerebral artery is the correct answer because PCA infarction of the occipital cortex causes contralateral homonymous hemianopia, often with macular sparing due to collateral blood flow to the occipital pole. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →