A 29-year-old man presents with left testicular mass and elevated serum α-fetoprotein at 450 ng/mL. Vital signs show BP 128/82 mmHg, HR 88 bpm, RR 16/min, temperature 37.2°C, and SpO2 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals a firm, non-tender left testicular nodule; right testis appears normal. CT abdomen/pelvis is obtained to identify the initial site of lymphatic spread from this germ cell tumor. Which lymph node group is most likely to contain metastases?
- A)Internal iliac lymph nodes
- B)External iliac lymph nodes
- C)Paraaortic lymph nodesGABARITO
- D)Deep inguinal lymph nodes
- E)Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
Explicação
The testes originate high on the posterior abdominal wall and retain lymphatic drainage to paraaortic nodes near the renal vessels. Scrotal skin, in contrast, drains to superficial inguinal nodes. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →