A 31-year-old woman with no prior abnormal Pap smears presents for routine cervical cancer screening. Vital signs are normal (BP 118/76, HR 78, RR 14, Temp 37°C). Pap testing reveals atypical squamous cells. Colposcopic biopsy shows disordered epithelial maturation, pleomorphic hyperchromatic nuclei, and numerous mitotic figures confined above an intact basement membrane. HPV testing is positive. Vaginal bleeding is absent. Which of the following best describes this lesion?
- A)Invasive carcinoma
- B)Hypertrophy
- C)Metaplasia
- D)Hyperplasia
- E)DysplasiaGABARITO
Explicação
Dysplasia is disordered epithelial growth characterized by cytologic atypia and loss of normal maturation. The key clue is that the abnormal cells are confined above an intact basement membrane, distinguishing dysplasia or carcinoma in situ from invasive carci... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →