A 72-year-old man with COPD presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history of progressive dyspnea, productive cough with purulent sputum, and fever. Vital signs show temperature 38.8°C, heart rate 108/min, respiratory rate 22/min, blood pressure 142/88 mmHg, and oxygen saturation 88% on room air. Chest X-ray demonstrates bilateral lower lobe consolidations. Laboratory studies show WBC 14,200/μL and sputum culture positive for Streptococcus pneumoniae. A rapid influenza antigen test from a nasopharyngeal swab returns positive. The patient denies recent antibiotic use and reports that his grandchildren visited 1 week ago with upper respiratory symptoms. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiologic basis for this patient's concurrent influenza and pneumococcal infection?
- A)Influenza virus damages respiratory epithelium and impairs mucociliary clearance, facilitating secondary bacterial invasionGABARITO
- B)Streptococcus pneumoniae produces viral neuraminidase, allowing it to mimic influenza infection
- C)The patient's COPD prevents the immune system from controlling either pathogen independently
- D)Influenza-specific IgG antibodies cross-react with pneumococcal antigens, worsening bacterial proliferation
- E)The rapid influenza test demonstrates a false positive due to molecular mimicry with pneumococcal antigens
Explicação
Influenza virus causes direct cytopathic damage to respiratory epithelial cells, disrupts tight junctions, and impairs mucociliary clearance and ciliary function. This creates a permissive environment for secondary bacterial pathogens like S. pneumoniae to adh... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →