A 16-year-old boy presents with left-sided scrotal swelling and pain. Vital signs: BP 118/76 mmHg, HR 88/min, RR 16/min, Temp 37°C, SpO2 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals a palpable "bag of worms" on the left. Scrotal ultrasound demonstrates dilation of the pampiniform plexus with venous reflux on Valsalva maneuver. Abdominal imaging shows compression of a vessel between the superior mesenteric artery and aorta. No hematuria is noted. Which vessel is most directly affected?
- A)Left testicular vein
- B)Inferior mesenteric vein
- C)Inferior vena cava
- D)Right testicular vein
- E)Left renal veinGABARITO
Explicação
A left-sided varicocele can result from compression of the left renal vein, which receives the left testicular vein before crossing between the superior mesenteric artery and aorta. This anatomic arrangement explains why varicoceles occur more commonly on the ... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →