A 68-year-old man presents with his first focal motor seizure involving the left leg followed by 48-hour post-ictal paralysis. Vitals: BP 142/88, HR 92, RR 18, Temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98% on room air. Brain MRI demonstrates a right parietal mass with vasogenic edema and mass effect; no acute intracranial hemorrhage noted. Laboratory studies show normal complete blood count and basic metabolic panel. He denies recent head trauma and takes no antiepileptic medications. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?
- A)Benign focal epilepsy of childhood
- B)Primary brain tumor or intracranial massGABARITO
- C)Cerebral infarction
- D)Idiopathic focal epilepsy
- E)Viral encephalitis
Explicação
First seizure in an elderly patient should raise suspicion for secondary causes, particularly intracranial mass. The MRI finding of a focal lesion with edema confirms a structural cause. Primary and secondary brain tumors are common etiologies of late-onset se... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →