A 29-year-old woman presents with history of optic neuritis. Vital signs are stable (BP 118/76, HR 78, RR 14, Temp 37°C, SpO2 98%). Brain MRI reveals one T2 hyperintense periventricular lesion without gadolinium enhancement. CSF analysis demonstrates oligoclonal bands present in CSF but absent in serum. She denies current visual symptoms or neurologic deficits. Which of the following best describes her risk for developing clinically definite multiple sclerosis?
- A)Approximately 75% risk within 15 years
- B)Approximately 50% risk within 15 yearsGABARITO
- C)No increased risk beyond general population
- D)Nearly 100% risk within 5 years
- E)Less than 10% risk within 15 years
Explicação
A patient with a clinically isolated syndrome (CIS) such as optic neuritis, with one brain MRI lesion and positive oligoclonal bands, has approximately 50% risk of developing clinically definite MS within 15 years. The presence of MRI lesions and oligoclonal b... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →