A 12 year old boy is brought to the clinic because of fever and migratory pain in both knees and ankles. Three weeks ago he had a sore throat that was not treated. Examination reveals a new holosystolic murmur at the apex and several painless subcutaneous nodules over the elbows. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Acute rheumatic feverGABARITO
- B)Aortic dissection
- C)Restrictive cardiomyopathy
- D)Infective endocarditis
- E)Dilated cardiomyopathy
Explicação
Acute rheumatic fever is correct. This child has a classic post streptococcal syndrome with migratory polyarthritis, carditis, and subcutaneous nodules appearing weeks after untreated pharyngitis. Molecular mimicry leads to a type II hypersensitivity reaction ... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →