A 44-year-old man with a history of HIV infection presents to clinic for evaluation of a new skin lesion. He reports poor adherence to antiretroviral therapy for the past 18 months. On examination, he has a painless, non-blanching violaceous macule on his lower extremity that has slowly enlarged over 6 weeks. His vital signs are stable. Laboratory studies show: CD4+ T-lymphocyte count 380/mm³, HIV RNA viral load 185,000 copies/mL, hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Kaposi sarcoma (HHV-8 associated)GABARITO
- B)Cryptococcal meningitis with skin manifestations
- C)Disseminated tuberculosis with erythema induratum
- D)Oral candidiasis with oral mucosal involvement
- E)Cytomegalovirus retinitis with hemorrhagic lesions
Explicação
Kaposi sarcoma (HHV-8) is the correct answer. This malignancy characteristically presents with painless, non-blanching violaceous macules, plaques, or nodules that can occur anywhere on the body. Critically, Kaposi sarcoma is unique among HIV-associated opport... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →