A 40-year-old woman with a history of splenectomy presents with fever, productive cough, and dyspnea. Vital signs show temperature 39.2°C, heart rate 102/min, respiratory rate 22/min, blood pressure 128/82 mmHg, and SpO2 94% on room air. Chest X-ray demonstrates right middle lobe consolidation. Blood culture grows gram-positive, lancet-shaped diplococci. She denies recent antibiotic use. Which organism is most likely responsible for her infection?
- A)Klebsiella pneumoniae
- B)Legionella pneumophila
- C)Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia
- D)Streptococcus pneumoniaeGABARITO
- E)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explicação
Streptococcus pneumoniae is correct. Asplenic patients are especially vulnerable to encapsulated organisms, and gram positive lancet shaped diplococci causing lobar pneumonia is classic for pneumococcus. The focal lobar pattern is typical rather than atypical. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →