A 31-year-old woman with schizophrenia started olanzapine 3 months ago and now presents with galactorrhea, amenorrhea, and weight gain. Vital signs: BP 118/76, HR 82, RR 16, Temp 37°C, SpO2 98% on room air. Serum prolactin is elevated at 65 ng/mL (normal <25). Pregnancy test is negative. TSH and free T4 are normal. Which of the following best explains her endocrine dysfunction?
- A)Constitutive activation of the RET receptor
- B)Blockade of dopamine inhibition of lactotrophsGABARITO
- C)Excess ACTH production by the pituitary
- D)Excess peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
- E)Direct stimulation of prolactin release by thyroid hormone
Explicação
Dopamine tonically inhibits prolactin secretion. Dopamine antagonists such as antipsychotics remove this inhibition, causing hyperprolactinemia. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →