A 42-year-old man presents with resistant hypertension (BP 168/102 mmHg, HR 88/min) and fatigue. Laboratory studies reveal hypokalemia (K+ 3.1 mEq/L), metabolic alkalosis (HCO3- 32 mEq/L), and suppressed plasma renin activity (0.3 ng/mL/hr). Serum calcium is elevated at 10.8 mg/dL with low PTH (15 pg/mL). Urinary potassium is inappropriately elevated. Recent imaging shows no renal artery stenosis. He denies licorice use and takes no glucocorticoids. Which diagnosis best explains his clinical presentation?
- A)Primary adrenal insufficiency
- B)Pheochromocytoma
- C)Primary hyperaldosteronismGABARITO
- D)SIADH
- E)Secondary hyperaldosteronism due to renal artery stenosis
Explicação
Primary hyperaldosteronism, or Conn syndrome, causes autonomous aldosterone production with sodium retention, potassium wasting, and metabolic alkalosis. Because the adrenal cortex is secreting aldosterone independently, renin is suppressed. Resistant hyperten... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →