A 45-year-old man from the Southwest presents with fever, cough, and erythema nodosum. Chest X-ray shows hilar lymphadenopathy and a cavitary lesion in the left upper lobe. Sputum culture grows a dimorphic fungus that appears as spherules with endospores at body temperature. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?
- A)Terbinafine
- B)Nystatin oral suspension
- C)Amphotericin B followed by itraconazoleGABARITO
- D)Griseofulvin
- E)Fluconazole
Explicação
Coccidioidomycosis (caused by Coccidioides immitis) presents with cavitary pneumonia in the Southwest. The spherule-endospore morphology is pathognomonic. Severe pulmonary coccidioidomycosis requires amphotericin B induction followed by azole therapy (itracona... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →