A 35-year-old man sustains a stab wound to the left side of his neck. On examination, he has right-sided arm and leg weakness (4/5), preserved pinprick sensation bilaterally, but diminished vibration and proprioception on the right. Vital signs: BP 128/82, HR 92, RR 16, temp 37°C, SpO2 98% on room air. MRI shows left-sided cervical spinal cord injury. Which spinal cord syndrome best describes this clinical presentation?
- A)Cauda equina syndrome
- B)Dorsal root syndrome
- C)Brown-Séquard syndromeGABARITO
- D)Posterior cord syndrome
- E)Anterior cord syndrome
Explicação
Brown-Séquard syndrome results from hemisection of the spinal cord. It produces ipsilateral weakness (right corticospinal tract), ipsilateral loss of vibration/proprioception (right posterior column), and contralateral loss of pain/temperature (left spinothala... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →