A 51-year-old man with biopsy-confirmed membranous nephropathy presents with sudden left flank pain and gross hematuria. Vital signs: BP 156/94, HR 102, RR 18, Temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. He denies fever or recent trauma. Serum albumin is 2.1 g/dL; urinalysis shows 3+ protein. CT angiography confirms left renal vein thrombosis. Loss of which of the following proteins in the urine most directly contributed to this hypercoagulable state and thrombotic complication?
- A)Antithrombin IIIGABARITO
- B)Erythropoietin
- C)Ceruloplasmin
- D)Transferrin
- E)Haptoglobin
Explicação
Nephrotic syndrome predisposes to thrombosis because urinary loss of anticoagulant factors such as antithrombin III creates a hypercoagulable state. Membranous nephropathy in particular is classically associated with renal vein thrombosis. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →