A 35-year-old man with Marfan syndrome presents with sudden-onset severe chest pain, dyspnea, and a new diastolic murmur at the left sternal border. His blood pressure is elevated bilaterally, and he has unequal arm pulses. Chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum. Which of the following is the most appropriate acute intervention?
- A)Intravenous vasodilators and diuretics
- B)Urgent cardiac catheterization
- C)Immediate cardiac surgery consultation and aortic imagingGABARITO
- D)Thrombolytic therapy
- E)Echocardiography and observation
Explicação
The clinical presentation suggests aortic dissection with acute aortic regurgitation (diastolic murmur), which is a surgical emergency in Marfan syndrome. The widened mediastinum, unequal pulses, and hemodynamic instability require immediate aortic imaging (CT... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →