A 45-year-old woman presents to her physician after discovering a palpable left breast mass. She has a significant family history notable for early-onset breast cancer in her mother (age 38) and maternal grandmother (age 42), as well as ovarian cancer in an aunt. Physical examination reveals a firm, fixed 2-cm mass in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast. Mammography and biopsy confirm invasive ductal carcinoma with ER+, PR+, HER2− immunophenotype. Genetic testing reveals a BRCA1 mutation. Which of the following best explains why BRCA1 mutation carriers have markedly elevated lifetime risk for breast and ovarian malignancies?
- A)Germline mutations in mismatch repair genes that cause microsatellite instability and accumulation of secondary mutations
- B)Haploinsufficiency of a tumor suppressor gene required for homologous recombination DNA repairGABARITO
- C)Constitutive activation of RAS/MAPK signaling pathways leading to uncontrolled cellular proliferation
- D)Somatic amplification of HER2 and other oncogenes on chromosome 17q
- E)Epigenetic silencing of estrogen receptor genes resulting in hormone-independent growth
Explicação
BRCA1 is a tumor suppressor gene critical for homologous recombination (HR) repair of double-strand DNA breaks. Carriers inherit one mutated BRCA1 allele, and when the second (wild-type) allele is lost somatically in a developing breast or ovarian cell, the ce... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →