A 65-year-old man with metastatic colon cancer presents with severe weakness, constipation, and polyuria. Vital signs: BP 92/58, HR 108, RR 18, Temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98% on room air. Serum calcium is 15.1 mg/dL; PTH is suppressed. Urinalysis shows no proteinuria. He denies recent thiazide use. Large-volume isotonic saline infusion is initiated. Which of the following best explains why this initial therapy helps lower his serum calcium level?
- A)It directly inhibits osteoclast activity
- B)It promotes intracellular shift of calcium
- C)It increases glomerular filtration and urinary calcium excretionGABARITO
- D)It binds serum calcium in the bloodstream
- E)It increases intestinal calcium absorption
Explicação
Aggressive isotonic saline repletion restores intravascular volume, increases GFR and enhances renal calcium excretion. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →