A 20-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of dysuria and increased urinary frequency. She states that she was recently married and was not sexually active prior to the marriage. Physical examination reveals a temperature of 100.7°F with normal vital signs. Gynecologic examination reveals no evidence of discharge, vaginitis, or cervicitis. Urinalysis reveals 14 white blood cells per high-powered field with many gram-negative rods. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?

1. A)Ceftriaxone
2. B)Gentamicin
3. C)Metronidazole
4. D)Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazoleGABARITO
5. E)Fluconazole