A 44-year-old woman develops sudden severe occipital headache while exercising, describing it as the worst headache of her life. She is febrile (38.2°C), hypertensive (168/98 mmHg), and tachycardic (102 bpm). She reports neck stiffness and vomits twice. Non-contrast head CT is unremarkable. Lumbar puncture reveals xanthochromia with RBC 8,000/μL and protein 95 mg/dL. She denies recent trauma or anticoagulant use. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Subdural hematoma
- B)Migraine with aura
- C)Subarachnoid hemorrhageGABARITO
- D)Temporal arteritis
- E)Epidural hematoma
Explicação
Subarachnoid hemorrhage is the correct answer because aneurysmal bleeding classically presents with thunderclap headache, vomiting, and xanthochromia on lumbar puncture when CT is nondiagnostic. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →