A 23-year-old female with sickle cell disease presents with fever (39.2°C), severe left tibial pain, and tachycardia (HR 108/min). Blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg, respirations 18/min, and SpO2 98% on room air. X-ray demonstrates a lytic lesion of the tibia. Blood cultures and bone culture both grow gram-negative rods. WBC is elevated at 14,200/μL with left shift. She denies recent gastrointestinal or genitourinary symptoms. Which organism best explains this clinical presentation?
- A)It is comma-shaped and sensitive to acidic pH.
- B)It is an obligate intracellular parasite.
- C)It is motile and does not ferment lactose.GABARITO
- D)It is a nonmotile facultative anaerobe.
- E)It is motile and oxidase positive.
Explicação
The correct answer is C. Source: Kaplan USMLE Step 1 QBank — Microbiology/Immunology Test 1. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →