A 42-year-old woman with a 10-year history of ulcerative colitis presents for surveillance colonoscopy. She reports well-controlled symptoms on mesalamine monotherapy with no abdominal pain, diarrhea, or rectal bleeding over the past 6 months. Vital signs are normal and laboratory studies show hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL, normal C-reactive protein, and normal fecal calprotectin. During colonoscopy, the mucosa appears quiescent without active inflammation. However, random biopsies reveal dysplasia in multiple non-contiguous segments of the colon without an endoscopically visible lesion or mass. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

1. A)Repeat colonoscopy with dye-based or virtual chromoendoscopy and targeted biopsies of any suspicious areas
2. B)Initiate combination therapy with infliximab and azathioprine to suppress dysplasia development
3. C)Perform immediate proctocolectomy with ileal pouch-anal anastomosisGABARITO
4. D)Increase 5-aminosalicylic acid dosing and repeat colonoscopy in 3 months
5. E)Perform endoscopic mucosal resection of all biopsied areas and continue medical surveillance