A 29-year-old Rh-negative woman delivers her second child vaginally. She had elevated anti-D antibodies during pregnancy. The newborn presents with jaundice at 12 hours of life and poor feeding. Vital signs: HR 160/min, RR 45/min, Temp 37.2°C. Laboratory findings show hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL, reticulocyte count 8%, and elevated indirect hyperbilirubinemia. Direct antiglobulin test is positive. The infant has no petechiae or bleeding. Which mechanism best explains this clinical presentation?

1. A)Maternal IgM antibodies fix complement on fetal erythrocytes
2. B)Lack of fetal intrinsic factor causes megaloblastic anemia
3. C)Defective fetal beta-globin synthesis causes intramedullary hemolysis
4. D)Maternal IgG antibodies cross the placenta and destroy fetal Rh-positive red blood cellsGABARITO
5. E)Fetal platelets are destroyed by anti-GpIIb/IIIa antibodies