A 48-year-old man with no prior cardiac history presents to the emergency department with acute substernal chest pain radiating to his left arm. Vital signs: BP 142/88 mmHg, HR 102 bpm, RR 18, temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98% on room air. ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Serum troponin I is 2.8 ng/mL (normal <0.04). He undergoes emergent percutaneous coronary intervention with drug-eluting stent placement to the right coronary artery. Post-procedure angiography demonstrates TIMI 3 flow with excellent stent apposition and no angiographic complications. The patient is initiated on dual antiplatelet therapy plus additional cardiac medications. Which of the following agents is most critical for preventing stent thrombosis in the months following percutaneous coronary intervention?
- A)Aspirin monotherapy
- B)Beta-blocker therapy alone
- C)High-intensity statin therapy alone
- D)ACE inhibitor therapy
- E)Dual antiplatelet therapy with clopidogrel and aspirinGABARITO
Explicação
Dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) with aspirin and a P2Y12 inhibitor (clopidogrel, prasugrel, or ticagrelor) is the gold standard for preventing stent thrombosis, particularly in the critical early and late phases after percutaneous coronary intervention. Clopi... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →