A 55-year-old woman with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hyperlipidemia (LDL 156 mg/dL despite atorvastatin) presents to the emergency department with acute substernal chest pain radiating to her left arm and associated dyspnea. Vital signs show blood pressure 92/58 mmHg, heart rate 102 bpm, and respiratory rate 22/min. Troponin I is 3.2 ng/mL (normal <0.04). A 12-lead ECG demonstrates new ST-segment elevation in leads V1-V4 with reciprocal ST depression in leads II, III, and aVF. She is immediately anticoagulated with heparin and taken for urgent cardiac catheterization. Coronary angiography reveals a critical LAD occlusion with TIMI 0 flow, severe (90%) RCA stenosis, and severe (85%) LCx stenosis. Hemodynamic assessment shows a cardiac output of 3.8 L/min with pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 28 mmHg. Left ventriculography demonstrates global hypokinesis with an ejection fraction of 28%. Which of the following findings most strongly supports mechanical revascularization via percutaneous coronary intervention or coronary artery bypass grafting rather than medical management alone?
- A)Triple-vessel coronary artery disease with acute STEMI and severely reduced ejection fraction
- B)Elevated B-type natriuretic peptide level of 450 pg/mL
- C)Presence of anterior wall motion abnormality on left ventriculography
- D)TIMI 0 flow in the infarct-related artery with hemodynamic instabilityGABARITO
- E)Elevated high-sensitivity C-reactive protein of 8.2 mg/L
Explicação
TIMI 0 flow in the infarct-related artery (LAD) with hemodynamic instability (low cardiac output, elevated pulmonary pressures, hypotension) represents acute mechanical failure requiring urgent revascularization. The combination of an acutely occluded vessel p... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →