A 29-year-old tall thin man suddenly develops severe pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea while playing basketball. In the emergency department he is tachycardic, hypotensive, and has absent breath sounds on the right with tracheal deviation to the left and distended neck veins. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
- A)Start broad spectrum antibiotics
- B)Obtain urgent CT angiography
- C)Administer intravenous furosemide
- D)Immediate needle decompression followed by chest tube placementGABARITO
- E)Urgent bronchoscopy
Explicação
This patient has a tension pneumothorax causing obstructive shock. Immediate needle decompression is required before confirmatory imaging because rising intrapleural pressure reduces venous return and can rapidly become fatal. Chest tube placement provides def... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →