A 34-year-old woman presents with acute monocular vision loss and pain with eye movements. Vital signs: BP 118/76, HR 88, RR 16, Temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. Examination reveals a relative afferent pupillary defect. Brain MRI is normal; however, orbital MRI demonstrates T2 hyperintensity and gadolinium enhancement of the optic nerve. She denies headache, weakness, or sensory changes. She takes no chronic medications. Which diagnosis is most likely?
- A)Multiple sclerosis
- B)Optic neuritisGABARITO
- C)Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
- D)Leber hereditary optic neuropathy
- E)Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder
Explicação
Optic neuritis is inflammation of the optic nerve presenting with acute monocular vision loss, pain with eye movement (retrobulbar pain), and RAPD. It is often demyelinating and may be the first presentation of MS, though isolated optic neuritis does not requi... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →