A 34-year-old woman presents with acute monocular vision loss and eye pain on upgaze. MRI shows optic nerve inflammation. Three months later, she develops bilateral leg weakness and sensory changes. Brain MRI reveals multiple T2-hyperintense lesions in periventricular and juxtacortical regions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
- B)Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
- C)Leber hereditary optic neuropathy
- D)Multiple sclerosisGABARITO
- E)Devic disease (neuromyelitis optica)
Explicação
This patient has multiple sclerosis (MS), evidenced by optic neuritis followed by spinal cord involvement (disseminated in time and space), plus characteristic MRI findings of periventricular and juxtacortical demyelinating lesions in a young woman. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →