A 40-year-old male presents with acute loss of sensation over the right scrotum and medial right thigh following a motorcycle accident. Vital signs show BP 128/82 mmHg, HR 92/min, RR 16/min, temperature 37°C, SpO2 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals intact motor function and normal ankle reflexes bilaterally. MRI of the pelvis demonstrates right inguinal nerve compression at the inguinal ligament. Damage to which of the following nerves accounts for these sensory deficits?
- A)Iliohypogastric
- B)Pudendal
- C)Genitofemoral
- D)Lateral cutaneous
- E)IlioinguinalGABARITO
Explicação
The correct answer is C. Source: Kaplan USMLE Step 1 QBank — Anatomy Test 1. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →