A 26-year-old woman presents with petechiae and easy bruising two weeks after a viral upper respiratory infection. Vital signs are stable (BP 118/76, HR 82, RR 16, Temp 37°C). Physical examination reveals scattered petechiae on her lower extremities; splenomegaly is absent. Laboratory studies show platelet count of 14,000/mm³, hemoglobin 13.2 g/dL, and WBC 7,200/mm³. Coagulation studies are normal. She denies recent medication use. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of her thrombocytopenia?
- A)Autoantibodies against platelet glycoproteins causing splenic clearanceGABARITO
- B)Deficiency of ADAMTS13 leading to platelet rich microthrombi
- C)Suppression of all bone marrow cell lines by toxic injury
- D)Deficiency of vitamin K dependent clotting factors
- E)Consumption of clotting factors by widespread tissue factor activation
Explicação
Autoantibodies against platelet glycoproteins causing splenic clearance is correct. Immune thrombocytopenia causes isolated thrombocytopenia after viral infection, often from antibodies directed against platelet glycoprotein IIb IIIa. The marrow is otherwise i... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →