A 2-month-old male presents with a firm, non-tender midline sacrococcygeal mass noted on routine physical examination. The mass is located just superior to the coccyx. Imaging shows a well-circumscribed tumor containing mature bone, cartilage, adipose tissue, and disorganized neural elements. Genetic testing reveals a TP53 mutation. Which of the following embryologic abnormalities best accounts for this finding?
- A)Failure of fusion of the neural folds during primary neurulation
- B)Incomplete regression of the primitive streak and caudal eminenceGABARITO
- C)Abnormal migration of pluripotent neural crest cells to the midline
- D)Persistence of the neurenteric canal connecting notochord to endoderm
- E)Failure of notochord involution with ectopic notochordal remnants
Explicação
Sacrococcygeal teratomas arise from incomplete regression of the primitive streak and caudal eminence (tail bud) during weeks 4-6 of gestation. This region contains pluripotent mesenchymal cells capable of differentiation into multiple germ layers, explaining ... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →