A 20-year-old woman presents to urgent care with a 5-day history of severe pharyngitis, malaise, and fever. She reports that her roommate was ill with similar symptoms 3 weeks ago. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.8°C, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, palatal petechiae, and mild splenomegaly. Laboratory testing reveals a white blood cell count of 12,500/μL with 45% lymphocytes (many appearing atypical), and a heterophile antibody test is positive. The clinical syndrome presents because the causative virus preferentially infects and causes proliferation of which of the following cell types?

  1. A)B lymphocytesGABARITO
  2. B)Hepatocytes
  3. C)Kupffer cells
  4. D)Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
  5. E)Neutrophils

Explicação

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is a double-stranded DNA herpesvirus that binds to CD21 receptors on B lymphocytes, causing direct infection and polyclonal B cell proliferation. This B cell activation leads to the production of heterophile antibodies (detected by the... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →

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