A 20-year-old woman presents to urgent care with a 5-day history of severe pharyngitis, malaise, and fever. She reports that her roommate was ill with similar symptoms 3 weeks ago. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.8°C, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, palatal petechiae, and mild splenomegaly. Laboratory testing reveals a white blood cell count of 12,500/μL with 45% lymphocytes (many appearing atypical), and a heterophile antibody test is positive. The clinical syndrome presents because the causative virus preferentially infects and causes proliferation of which of the following cell types?
- A)B lymphocytesGABARITO
- B)Hepatocytes
- C)Kupffer cells
- D)Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
- E)Neutrophils
Explicação
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is a double-stranded DNA herpesvirus that binds to CD21 receptors on B lymphocytes, causing direct infection and polyclonal B cell proliferation. This B cell activation leads to the production of heterophile antibodies (detected by the... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →