A 29-year-old woman with a 12-year history of type 1 diabetes mellitus presents to her endocrinologist for a follow-up visit regarding persistent postprandial glucose excursions, with peak readings consistently around 280 mg/dL occurring approximately 1–2 hours after meals despite adherence to her current mealtime insulin regimen. Her HbA1c is 8.2%, fasting glucose averages 110 mg/dL, and her C-peptide level is undetectable, confirming absent endogenous insulin secretion. Vital signs are stable: blood pressure 118/74 mmHg, heart rate 76 bpm, BMI 23 kg/m². Physical examination is unremarkable. She denies nausea, vomiting, or other gastrointestinal symptoms. Her endocrinologist decides to add a subcutaneous adjunctive medication that works by decreasing postprandial glucagon secretion and delaying gastric emptying. Which of the following drugs was most likely added?
- A)PramlintideGABARITO
- B)Sitagliptin
- C)Semaglutide
- D)Metformin
- E)Repaglinide
Explicação
Pramlintide is an amylin analog that decreases glucagon release and slows gastric emptying, thereby reducing postprandial glucose spikes. It is used as adjunctive therapy in insulin treated diabetes and can increase hypoglycemia risk if insulin is not adjusted... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →